A320 MQF List – Airplane General Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• If a fuel imbalance greater than 3300 pounds is detected, what indicates the highest fuel level?
• Which is NOT a source of air for engine start?
• How is the pressurization system manually controlled?
• If the APU is supplying bleed air or one pack fails, which airflow is delivered regardless of the PACK FLOW selector position?
• The FADEC controls all of the following except:
• What does the FMA indicate?
• What is indicated by the FAULT light on the APU MASTER switch?
• What is one of the three functions of the FACs?
• What does the cabin safety valve protect against?
• Maximum flap speeds (UA limits) are:
• Wing anti-ice valves close automatically when:
• How is the DC system reconfigured in the event of a TR failure?
• What indicates an amber ENG BLEED FAULT light?
• What does a blue A/THR FMA in column 5 of the FMA indicate?
• The A/THR RETARD mode is ONLY available during a(n) ____landing.
• What happens to stability in direct law conditions?
• What condition leads to switching from normal law to alternate law?
• What color indicates the engaged mode of the A/THR in Column 1 of the FMA?
• How many fire bottles are used to fire protect the 320 cargo compartments?
• A brake accumulator provides at least _____ full brake applications:
• What additional step may be necessary if the APU continues to run despite the APU MASTER switch being OFF?
• How is the rudder actuated?
• When can both autopilot 1 and autopilot 2 be engaged simultaneously?
• What happens when the recirculation fuel fills a wing tank while the center tank supplies fuel to the engines?
• What must be done if the Captain's ND shows a blank screen?
• How is continuous ignition manually selected in an A320?
• Up to what altitude can the APU be started using normal electrics?
• How are normal law pitch attitude limits displayed on the PFD?
• Which of the following best describes the flare mode?
• What does the EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate?
• The PTU is automatically activated when there is a differential pressure of ___ PSI between the green and yellow systems.
• During the automatic start sequence of ENG 1, you notice that only igniter A is powered. Is this normal?
• Alpha protections is indicated by the:
• An illuminated APU MASTER switch FAULT light indicates that the APU has what condition?
• A continuous repetitive chime, or specific sound, or synthetic voice indicates?
• What is the selected airspeed?
• Which mode provides a controlled climb after takeoff?
• What does a green dot indicate on the PFD during climb?
• What is an indication of a successful transition to backup mode?
• What does maintaining V alpha protection ensure?
• What color is used to display the engaged vertical and lateral modes of the FMA?
• The pack flow control valve automatically closes for all but which of the following?
• How many Air Conditioning System Controllers (ACSC) are present in an aircraft for temperature regulation?
• During a manual start, ____ is not available.
• If the EPR mode fails, the FADEC automatically reverts to the:
• What happens to outflow valve control when ram air is introduced at low differential pressure?
• How is the engagement of the autopilot confirmed?
• The bus tie contactors open or close automatically to maintain power supply to AC busses 1 and 2 when the bus tie switch is in which position?
• Which component is responsible for detecting pressurization faults?
• What happens when the MECH button on the CALLS panel is pushed?
• If the lav/galley extract fan fails, what happens to the cabin zone inlet duct temperature?
• What does the amber = sign along the airspeed scale indicate?
• To achieve automatic spoiler extension during landing, what must be true?
• What is the engagement range of the A/THR with one engine running?
• You can recall a cleared ECAM by pressing:
• How is fuel supplied to the engines during emergency electrical configuration?
• In case of an emergency, how is cabin pressure specifically monitored?
• What is the significance of the priority valve in hydraulic systems?
• What happens to the stabilizer during rollout after a normal landing?
• What is the required pilot action with the loss of both primary and secondary zone controller channels?
• What happens to the cabin altitude when the LDG ELEV selector is used?
• After each engine is started, what happens to the center tank fuel pumps?
• A low fuel level warning may be triggered during steep descents due to?
• What are the three FMGC modes of operation?
• What is the role of the LDG ELEV Selector in the pressurization system?
• Which device is used to shut off hydraulic power to heavy users if system pressure drops below a predetermined value?
• Approach idle is selected inflight with _____ or _____ or when landing gear is down.
• When is automatic pitch trim inhibited?
• The slats are powered by which hydraulic system(s)?
• When N2 increases to greater than ___ percent, the FADEC no longer monitors start parameters.
• Each lavatory is equipped with what type of fire protection equipment?
• In case of AC bus 1 failure, the AC ESS bus can be transferred to AC bus 2 by:
• What occurs when the sidesticks are moved simultaneously?
• What initiates autobraking during landing?
• A degraded flight control law may be caused by:
• What can be done to avoid a change in thrust when disconnecting the autothrust system?
• What happens to the airplane's control when the sidestick is released during a turn?
• When will the APU fire protection system automatically shut down the APU?
• The ECAM SPEED BRK memo flashes amber if:
• Pushing the MAN ON switch extends the RAT under what condition?
• What component takes over if the primary pack controller channel fails?
• What is the primary purpose of the wing tank pumps during normal operations?
• What does a center tank transfer pump fault light indicate?
• If you release the sidestick now, what will happen to the bank angle?
• What is the maximum allowable fuel imbalance between inner tanks if the heavier tank is full?
• If both ELACs fail, pitch control transfers to which units?
• What condition causes THR LK?
• What type of brakes are available with only a green hydraulic failure?
• In emergency electrical configuration, which Electronic Instrument System (EIS) displays receive power?
• How is RWY TRK armed for takeoff?
• What is the purpose of the sidesticks order indication?
• What is the primary function of the MAN V/S CTL Switch?
• What is the position of the engine anti-ice valves after an electrical failure?
• What condition will cause the aircraft to switch to emergency electrical configuration?
• What is the primary role of the FADEC during an engine start?
• What happens to the vertical mode if a new altitude is selected on the FCU when ALT* is displayed?
• For automatic spoiler extension to occur during a rejected takeoff with the spoilers armed, what must happen?
• What pilot action is required for an APU fire on the ground?
• Alpha maximum speed is indicated by the:
• In the event of failure of both automatic pressurization controllers, what does a third motor provide?
• Under what condition does the ground roll guidance command bar provide Flight Director yaw commands?
• In which scenario is the DUAL mode of the FMGC preferred?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of the ECAM status page?
• Flap position 1 will extend only the slats when the:
• If the fuel MODE SEL switch is in AUTO, what will happen to the center tank pumps when the slats are extended?
• What component needs to be monitored to ensure proper fuel circulation in the system?
• Which hydraulic system(s) is responsible for powering the flaps?
• When do the wing anti-ice valves close automatically?
• Pushing the HDG knob will arm which lateral mode?
• Fuel is normally supplied to the APU from which source?
• What is the outcome if both pack controller channels fail?
• Which VHF radio and RMP are available when on emergency generator power only?
• Which mode should be selected to fly the flight management system route?
• Holding an autothrust disconnect button for more than how many seconds will cause a loss of ALPHA FLOOR protection for the remainder of the flight?
• What does amber PITCH TRIM on the F/CTL ECAM page indicate?
• How long do both center tank pumps run after each engine reaches idle if there is fuel in the tank and the fuel MODE SEL switch is in AUTO?
• In a fuel system failure situation, what typically happens to the wing tank pumps?
• While pre-flighting, you hear a horn in the nose wheel well. If the APU is not running, what might this indicate?
• What does the term 'Alpha Prot' refer to?
• What does the RAT MAN ON switch do?
• Where is the Selected Altitude displayed on the altitude scale?
• In flight, with only one engine generator operating, how is the electrical system configured?
• What does the autothrust system utilize to monitor and control thrust?
• In alternate law, the airspeed highlighted by an arrow refers to what?
• Which hydraulic systems have electric pumps?
• When does the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) stop automatically?
• What type of air from the pneumatic system is used to maintain the desired zone temperature?
• If normal electrical power is lost, essential cockpit lighting is maintained for the:
• If the Captain's PFD, ND, and upper ECAM screen show a diagonal line, what should be done?
• What is the groundspeed of the airplane?
• The majority of the APU's system logic is performed by which component?
• Which spoiler panels on each wing are designated as ground spoilers?
• When should the IDG not be disconnected?
• The landing gear hydraulic safety valve is controlled by:
• What is the effect on the center tank fuel pumps with the fuel MODE SEL switch in MAN and CTR TK pump switches ON?
• What does a fuel pump FAULT light indicate?
• The PTU is a reversible motor pump located between the:
• How do you turn the window heat on without the engines running?
• If the primary pack controller channel fails, what happens?
• What is the only valid indication of the status of the autoflight system?
• The maximum speed for landing gear extension (UAL) is _____ knots.
• To power the essential bus from AC bus 2 due to a loss of AC bus 1, what pilot action is required?
• High speed protection is deactivated when:
• With a loss of TR 1, what pilot action is required?
• What is the normal position of the fuel crossfeed valve?
• What occurs when an IDG is disconnected?
• If a single lane of an ACSC fails, what occurs in the system operation?
• From where does the pressurization controller normally use landing elevation QNH?
• What is a key characteristic of ALPHA FLOOR?
• Which is NOT a defined thrust lever position by a stop or detent?
• Which of the following is one of the three high angle of attack protections?
• Which condition does NOT trigger an automatic APU shutdown?
• What is the Selected Altitude off scale?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of normal roll law in the flight mode?
• In what situation would you expect both autopilot systems to be active?
• Which control lets you select manual pressurization?
• Which fault lights are associated with the Avionics Smoke ECAM?
• Why are both igniters powered during the ENG 1 start sequence?
• What action should a pilot take if the aircraft indicates an active Alpha floor protection?
• What does it mean if an INDEPENDENT OPERATION message appears on the MCDU?
• When is LAND INHIBIT active?
• Which component is responsible for the flight guidance information exchange in DUAL mode?
• How does the pressurization system receive landing field elevation information in a diversion scenario?
• Automatic transfer of the pressurization controllers occurs after which event or failure?
• What type of aural warning accompanies a level 2 ECAM?
• Which flight control protection is available in alternate law?
• What happens when you push the ECAM EMER CANC button when a red ECAM WARNING is active?
• If both lanes of an ACSC fail, what is the result?
• What condition is indicated by a green ALTN MODE on the ECAM air conditioning page?
• What aural warning is heard when the MASTER CAUT light illuminates?
• What is the minimum flap retraction speed indicated in the relevant graphic?
• Which anti-ice switch is indicated as being ON according to the ECAM bleed page?
• What does an illuminated ENG 1 FAULT light on the ENG panel signify?
• What happens if there is a fault detected during the engine start phase?
• What PSI is expected to be shown with the RAT extended?
• The AUTO position of the NO SMOKING switch causes which of the following signs to illuminate when the landing gear is extended?
• What does an amber APU BLEED FAULT light indicate?
• What is the sidestick to surface relationship in the normal law ground mode?
• When is the cabin call aural flight deck buzzer inhibited?
• How is the loss of normal law displayed on the PFD?
• What does a solid green light next to a system's status indicate?
• During taxi, if the brake pressure is low, which indication might appear?
• The ailerons droop 5° when the:
• When is the normal law flight mode active?
• What is the actual indicated airspeed of the airplane?
• Red colored text on the ECAM screen signifies:
• In flight, what additional fault light will illuminate for a green or yellow system reservoir problem besides the PTU FAULT light?
• Continuous ignition is NOT automatically provided for which of the following conditions?
• What is the effect on the engine when either engine anti-ice valve is open?
• When could the low energy SPEED, SPEED, SPEED warning be triggered?
• To open the ram air inlet by selecting the RAM AIR switch ON, which switch must be in its normal guarded position?
• What is the position of the wing anti-ice valves after an electrical failure?
• When is continuous ignition NOT automatically provided in flight?
• What occurs when the fuel quantity reaches 1650 pounds in either inner wing compartment?
• In the case of an APU fire detection, what is the initial response?
• What does a fuel MODE SEL FAULT light indicate?
• A triple click aural signal indicates?
• Which hydraulic pumps are running after Number 1 engine start?
• Which pressure reading is at typical operational levels for the blue hydraulic system?
• What does an ENG 1 PUMP or ENG 2 PUMP FAULT light indicate along with a PTU FAULT light?
• What other role does the APU fulfill aside from providing electrical power?
• Which flight control law is indicated in the alternate law?
• After recovery from an ALPHA FLOOR engagement, when angle of attack is reduced, what will be announced in green on the FMA?
• When does the RAT automatically extend?
• What is the normal FMGC mode of operation?
• With the pressurization system in AUTO and landing elevation set, how is the cabin altitude controlled?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of the electrical system?
• Which scenario causes an amber half box to appear around the FOB on the upper ECAM display?
• Speed brake extension is inhibited when?
• When is the beta target displayed?
• Each ACSC regulates temperature and airflow through which component to optimize temperature regulation?
• Pack valves will automatically re-open 30 seconds after:
• How is the temperature regulated during normal operation of the air conditioning system?
• A cavalry charge aural signal indicates?
• Which of the following indicates that the PTU is supplying pressure?
• What light indicates that the blue electric pump is not supplying pressure as required?
• Where are autopilot guidance modes selected on the A320?
• How are the slats/flaps affected if one SFCC fails?
• Which one of the following is a function of the flight management computer (FMC)?
• All of the following are tested by the T.O. CONFIG button except:
• When the air conditioning RAM AIR switch is ON and differential pressure is less than 1 PSI, what action is taken regarding the outflow valve?
• Which protection is never displayed on the PFD speed tape?
• What is indicated by the green arrow under the green 050/65?
• When flying on battery power only, what is the approximate battery endurance?
• What is the normal hydraulic system operating pressure for the green hydraulic system?
• What is indicated by the green 510 at the bottom of the attitude indicator?
• In manual mode, how is cabin altitude controlled?
• When activating the RAM AIR switch, what condition must be met for the ram air inlet to open?
• Which mode does the FADEC use for normal engine operation?
• The FADEC normal control mode meters fuel to maintain a reference:
• What does switching the cabin pressure MODE SEL Switch to MAN allow you to do?
• What is the resulting action if both zone controller channels fail?
• What can be deployed as an emergency means of pressurizing the blue hydraulic system?
• An APU automatic shutdown occurs due to which of the following conditions?
• Abnormal attitude law is caused by:
• What rudder trim input is required if an engine fails with the autopilot engaged?
• What does the RESET button on the audio control panel extinguish?
• Flying the Flight Path Vector (FPV) at 3 degrees below the horizon line will result in what?
• Which hydraulic system(s) provides pressure for the ALTERNATE brakes?
• What happens to the cabin altitude during a rapid descent?
• A continuous amber ENG ANTI-ICE FAULT light indicates.
• What is the design purpose of the fuel system for fuel feed sequencing?
• What is the main difference between alternate law ground mode and normal law ground mode?
• In the case of engine failure, which system assists in power management?
• What normally powers the cargo doors?
• What does illumination of the F/O's sidestick priority arrow indicate?
• What does the HOT AIR FAULT light indicate when it illuminates amber?
• Which condition results in a failure to provide thrust when the thrust levers are at the FLX/MCT detent?
• What is the UA limit next flap extended speed?
• During preflight, a horn in the nosewheel well may indicate what?
• What is the consequence of a failure of one of the two engine fire detection loops?
• What is the minimum slat retraction speed?
• What is the minimum slat retraction speed?
• What condition is required for the center tank to supply fuel during flight?
• If the FADEC detects a non-normal condition during an automatic start with N2 below 50%, what will happen?
• What happens when the blue pump is activated?
• With a single IDG failure, which part of the aircraft remains powered?
• When is T.O. INHIBIT active?
• Before takeoff and after landing, the status of the outflow valve should be _____, and the cabin should be _____.
• Which system is primarily responsible for emergency hydraulic pressure supply?
• In the normal configuration, which bus feeds the AC ESS bus?
• What must be set for an A320's autothrust system to function properly?
• What is the consequence of setting the landing elevation on the LDG ELEV selector?
• If the aircraft operates with the sidestick in a neutral position, what does that imply about both pilots?
• How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be manually energized?
• During an autostart, the FADEC automatically ________ the igniters at each start.
• What occurs when the hydraulic system pressure drops significantly for a hydraulic user?
• When is the blue hydraulic system pressurized?
• What is the function of the fuel pump’s low-pressure warning light?
• How is flight path director guidance displayed on the PFD in the TRK-FPA mode?
• In descending order, what is the priority of electrical power?
• When the APU MASTER switch is selected OFF, how long may the APU continue to run to cool before shutting down?
• What does pushing the T.O. CONFIG button on the ECAM control panel do?
• What happens to the ailerons during flap extension?
• Which hydraulic system(s) provides pressure for the NORMAL brakes?
• Which probe or mast is NOT heated on the ground when at least one engine is running?
• Which flight mode is NOT a direct function of the autothrust system?
• What elevation is typically set on the LDG ELEV Selector?
• How are the batteries charged in the aircraft?
• During a manual start, what function does the FADEC perform?
• What occurs when the APU generator voltage is below the rated level?
• The hot air pressure regulating valve automatically closes if what condition is met?
• When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law will:
• Which action will not disconnect the autothrust system?
• What is indicated when the autopilot is engaged in approach mode?
• What action is required if continuous ignition is necessary after the engines are started?
• With a green hydraulic system failure only, which brake system is not available?
• Engagement of CLB mode requires which engaged lateral mode?
• Blue colored text on the ECAM screen signifies:
• On earlier A320s, the emergency generator operates only with:
• How is the potable water system pressurized?
• Which statement best describes the use of the Green hydraulic system as it relates to normal landing gear extension?
• What is the purpose of the T.O. INHIBIT system?
• In flight, a PTU FAULT light, in addition to an ENG 2 PUMP FAULT light, could indicate a:
• Following pushback, what is the configuration of the electrical system when engine 1 is running and the APU is operating?
• In which phase of flight is soft altitude available in the FMGC?
• What is the primary purpose of the altitude alert system?
• How is autothrust arming confirmed on the FMA?
• How long should the CVR ERASE button be pushed to erase the tape?
• A momentary amber WING ANTI-ICE FAULT light indicates.
• Which of the following is a characteristic of mechanical back-up?
• What is the primary role of the surge tanks in the fuel system?
• How can you signal a mechanic outside the airplane?
• What causes the degradation of the flight control laws to mechanical backup mode?
• How is the vertical deviation indicator depicted on the PFD?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of normal law pitch control in the flight mode?
• Which igniter(s) is(are) used during a manual start?
• What should be verified during a manual start regarding bleed pressure indication?
• When is the PTU inhibited?
• What condition could lead to the activation of the PTU for pressure management?
• On later A320s and all A319s, the emergency generator operates:
• What do double dashes displayed over the last two digits of the fuel on board (FOB) indication mean?
• What is the role of the autothrust disconnect buttons on the thrust levers?
• How does the flight path director provide pitch and roll guidance in the TRK-FPA mode?
• What happens when the engine anti-ice system is activated?
• Illumination of the MODE SEL FAULT Light indicates what situation?
• A battery with low voltage can be charged by which method?
• The FADEC alternate control mode meters fuel to maintain a reference.
• How should you cancel an ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET caution during takeoff?
• When the LDG ELEV selector is set, how is cabin altitude controlled?
• When the engines are running, the FADEC is powered by:
• What is the engagement range of the autothrust system with both engines running?
• To prevent damage to the disconnect mechanism, do not hold the IDG switch in for more than:
• Using external conditioned ground air simultaneously with airplane air conditioning packs is:
• A blue item on the takeoff memo indicates a checklist item that is:
• What is the primary source of power for the airplane when the engines are running?
• Which function does the outflow valve primarily serve in AUTO mode?
• What is the flight path angle of the airplane when the flight path vector is positioned at the attitude indicator horizon line?
• A green arrow at the bottom of an ECAM E/WD memo section indicates:
• Which hydraulic system can be pressurized by deploying the RAT in an emergency?
• With both engines running, where is the engagement range of the thrust levers?
• Which component is used for back-up navigation radio tuning?
• The ECAM message NW STRG DISC changes from green to amber after:
• What function does the AUDIO SWITCHING selector provide?
• What is the maximum hydraulic system operating pressure?
• What do the sidestick priority lights indicate?
• When both the BLOWER and EXTRACT switches are selected to OVRD, what configuration is achieved?
• Which VHF radio is designated for ACARS data communication?
• How does the APU fire protection system respond to an APU fire?
• Which component is used to manually activate the RAT?
• Which hydraulic system is used for the parking brake?
• What does an amber USE MAN PITCH TRIM on the PFD indicate?
• How is the autopilot typically engaged during flight?
• What occurs when the takeover button on both sidesticks is pushed?
• What does the fuel recirculation system cool using fuel supplied to each engine?
• During a flaps full landing rollout with the spoilers deployed, what occurs if the speed brake handle is manually moved aft?
• How can the autothrust system be disconnected?
• When N2 increases to greater than ____ percent, the FADEC no longer monitors start parameters.
• When are the outflow valves typically adjusted?
• How does the electrical system respond in the event of a single engine generator failure during flight?
• Delaying the use of engine anti-ice until ice buildup is visible may:
• What happens to the air conditioning system if the zone controllers experience a fault?
• What does an amber PTU indication signify?
• If both autopilot buttons are selected on, what is the status of the FMGCs?
• Which flight control law applies in mechanical backup conditions?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of a level 3 ECAM?
• What is indicated if the min flap retraction speed is not displayed during flight?
• How many fire extinguishers are associated with the avionics smoke detection system?
• Where is IDG heat exchanger return fuel routed after the fuel return valve?
• What occurs when the flight control law degrades to alternate law in flight?
• What device provides information to the Captain's PFD, ND, and E/WD?
• What is the function of the RAT (Ram Air Turbine) in the system?
• Which of the following slats has anti-ice capability?
• When the sidestick is released with angle of attack protection active, what happens to the angle of attack?
• The SMOKE light illuminates amber when:
• Which statement best describes the APU during the start process?
• What must be ON for the autothrust system to arm when thrust levers are advanced for takeoff?
• When the system is in its fixed temperature state, what happens to the temperature regulation?
• Which of the following would cause an ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET warning during takeoff?
• When does the center tank begin to feed the engines after takeoff if there is fuel in the center tank?
• To what pressure does the RAT pressurize the blue hydraulic system?
• What is indicated by the "APU GEN" light on the overhead panel?
• What is the maximum deflection of both sidesticks when moved simultaneously?
• If a SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE message appears on the ND, what does it indicate?
• Which item is NOT inhibited by the T.O. INHIBIT system?
• If angle of attack protection is active, what must the pilot do?
• Continuous ignition is automatically provided when:
• What mode does an engaged autothrust system revert to when the flight directors and autopilots are switched off?
• Engine limit protections are NOT provided in the ____ mode.
• When is Alpha Max protection typically activated?
• In a 30 degree bank turn, what will happen if you release the stick while hand-flying in normal law?
• What flight condition is indicated by ALPHA FLOOR in an A320?
• What effect does ALPHA LOCK have on the airplane?
• What display provides the status of the autopilot system?
• What is the function of the over-pressure burst disk in the vent surge and inner wing tank?
• A degraded flight control law will always result in roll execution in:
• How many fuel pumps are functional in the smoke configuration?
• If the lower ECAM screen fails, what crew action is required to view the data normally contained on the screen?
• Which mode of the ND displays the glideslope deviation diamond?
• What happens if the sidestick takeover button is held for more than 40 seconds?
• During a January walkaround at ORD, you notice both inlet and extract valves are closed. What should you do?
• Flap handle in position 1 will extend flaps and slats (1+F) when the:
• If the ENG 2 FIRE switch is released out, what happens?
• When is it necessary to monitor the center tank fuel level closely?
• What happens to the AC ESS SHED bus when both engine generators are powering the system?
• Lowest selectable speed (Vls) is indicated by the:
• In AUTO mode, which component typically controls cabin differential pressure?
• Which is a characteristic of the battery power system?
• The avionics ventilation system provides cooling for all the following except the:
• What should be done to activate the secondary FMGC mode?
• If the airplane returns to the departure airport immediately after takeoff, how is the cabin altitude controlled?
• What indicates a DMC failure?
• What bus provides an alternate source of power for the AC ESS bus?
• The flaps are powered by which hydraulic system(s)?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of direct law?
• Which of the following is NOT inhibited by the T.O. INHIBIT?
• Which flight control law is active when normal law is indicated?
• What action does Alpha floor protection take in response to a specific condition?
• Which vertical mode meets FMGC altitude constraints?
• With slats retracted, how is fuel sequenced to the engines when there is fuel in all tanks?
• Which flight control law is indicated when direct law is shown?
• What protection is lost if the EPR mode fails?
• How is the autothrust system engaged in flight?
• How can thrust control be regained after a TOGA LK condition?
• In case of a failure of the primary navigation system, which system provides backup?
• What does a change to mechanical backup indicate about the flight control system?
• In what situation is the flight path vector most useful?
• Under what condition will the avionics system be in the closed configuration on the ground?
• During descent, how is cabin pressure typically managed?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of the APU electrical system?
• What is the normal hydraulic system operating pressure for the yellow hydraulic system?
• Which High Angle of Attack protection indicates that the aircraft is not in any protective mode?
• Which systems are interconnected for fluid transfer during pressure loss?
• When does the fuel recirculation stop?
• Which of the following occurs when high angle of attack protection is active?
• Which action is indicated by holding the takeover button on the captain's sidestick?
• What type of protection is indicated to be active when the aircraft is in a specific flight condition?
• What is the managed speed when EXP CLB is selected?
• What occurs to the spoilers if a SEC fault is detected or electrical power is lost?
• Which computer is responsible for windshear detection?
• What does the APU MASTER switch FAULT light indicate when it illuminates amber?
• How is the autothrust system armed on the ground?
• In flight, with fuel MODE SEL in AUTO, what condition must occur for the center tank pumps to run?
• What could happen if the fuel temperature exceeds a safe limit?
• How long is the PTU inhibited after cargo door operation?
• From which tanks can engines be gravity-fed?
• How does the FMGC manipulate data in the DUAL mode of operation?
• Which RMP is powered in an emergency electrical configuration?
• What is the maximum bank angle achievable with the sidestick fully deflected?
• Which hydraulic system(s) can be powered by the PTU?
• In the case of alternate law due to multiple system failures, which characteristic is true?
• What will occur if the BUS TIE switch is set to OFF?
• What is the purpose of the PTU?
• Which of the following is an operational mode of the FADEC?
• Which computers control the flaps?
• What type of protection is NOT provided under alternate law?
• What happens if the upper ECAM screen fails?
• What is the status of the yellow hydraulic system when the ENG PUMP switch is on and hydraulic pressure is low?
• What occurs in the air conditioning system if a zone controller primary channel fault is detected?
• Which protection is NOT a normal law protection?
• When Pack Flow is selected to LO and the temperature demand cannot be satisfied, to which flow does the pack revert?
• This ECAM ELEC page indicates the batteries are: